A 48-year-old office worker presents to the GP complaining of a 10-day history of persistent hoarse voice. Preceding this, she had symptoms of runny nose, cough, and sore throat but this has now resolved. Observations are normal and examination of the throat and chest is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
- A) Reassure and send home with antibiotics
- B) Reassure and send home with corticosteroids
- C) Urgent referral to ENT outpatient clinic
- D) Routine referral to ENT outpatient clinic
- E) Reassure and send home
ASCENT 