A 52-year-old lady is referred by her GP for profound hearing loss in her right ear associated with tinnitus. She has no significant past medical history. MRI scan of the head is warranted and subsequently shows a 15 mm cerebellopontine lesion in keeping with a vestibular schwannoma.
Which of the following options is the most appropriate management?
- A) Surgical resection via translabyrinthine approach
- B) Repeat interval scan in 6 months
- C) Surgical resection via retrosigmoid approach
- D) Repeat interval scan in 12 months
- E) Stereotactic radiosurgery
ASCENT 