An 18-year-old lady presents to clinic with a 3 day history of worsening left-sided otalgia. She complains that she did not get any sleep the previous night due to the discomfort from her ear. She does not report any significant hearing loss and is otherwise fit & healthy apart from a slight cold a few days ago. Otoscopy reveals a hyperaemic and bulging tympanic membrane on the left-side.
Given the likely diagnosis from the history, what would be the most appropriate first-line choice of management?
- A) Myringotomy and drainage
- B) Oral antibiotics
- C) Intravenous antibiotics
- D) Topical antibiotics
- E) No treatment indicated
ASCENT 